Somehow I have the Benny Hill theme running through my head.
I have to agree. Did he even know how to ride a motorcycle? Sticky throttle? Why not just clutch in?
I have to agree. Did he even know how to ride a motorcycle? Sticky throttle? Why not just clutch in?
Somehow I have the Benny Hill theme running through my head.
I've seen experienced racers have trouble dealing with a sticking throttle. Things happen fast.
He is not a pro but he is a competent rider. He just panicked when the unexpected happened.
So here is the story...
1) My friend went to a shop to check out a bike in the west end of Toronto.
2)They gave him the keys and told him to take it for a spin, no plates, no insurance.
3) He started the bike and started to pull out. As he got onto the street the throttle got stuck open on him and he lost control.
4) He fell off and because he was wearing no gear, he got some pretty bad rash as well as the fairings on the bike being damaged.
...now here is the interesting part...
6) The guys at the shop admit the throttle was giving problems but that the bike was actually a customer's bike
7) They tell my friend he owes $4000 for the damages and try to hold him there until he gives them money
8) My friend gets scared and runs away
...the story gets better...
9) The guys at the shop calls their friend who is a cop at 23 division and give him my buddie's name and phone number, to which, the cops provided the guys at the shop with my friends address and full name
10) Cop calls my friend and leave VM stating he is investigating a hit and run (no my friend did not hit anyone or anything).
11) The guys are calling my friend telling him they will be at his house by tonight if he doesn't agree to pay up and read out his full name and address
...So there are a number of issues here:
A) Is my friend responsible for the damage to the bike?
B) Can he go after the guys at the shop since he is hurt ?
C) What can my friend do about the police officer giving out his personal information?
If they didn't mention any particular criminal action then they haven't crossed the criminal line... yet.
This is 100 % untrue.
How so? They said they were going to come by his house if he didn't pay up... nothing illegal in that. We may all (likely) receive the implication that they are threatening, but WHAT are they threatening;
- to bring a bill over?
- to talk to him about the incident?
- to break the door down and beat the money out of him?
- to offer him a free motorcycle?
Only one of the above is criminal, and that wasn't mentioned in the story.
There's no criminal offense here.
There is no need for a threat to include details of the exact criminal activity to be a threat. I don't know whether the activity described by the OP is illegal or not, but your statement is still 100 % false.
in any event, it doesn't even matter if its illegal, if the guy feels threatened, he should call the cops, and no one knows that except him.
The sections of the code are for threaten (insert criminal act here, such as assault). What's this, threaten to assume?
As for him FEELING threatened; entirely different. Yes he should call the cops and yes an investigation should take place but without something more to the "threat", there's no way anyone's getting charged.
whatever you say expert.
The statement was made in order to intimidate and, therefore, to elicit a specific response. that's hurdle #1 in 'utter threat.'
This Court considered the provisions of s. 264.1(1)(a) in R. v. McCraw, 1991 CanLII 29 (SCC), [1991] 3 S.C.R. 72. The manner in which a court should approach charges of threatening was set out at pp.82-83 in these words:
How then should a court approach the issue? The structure and wording of s. 264.1(1)(a) indicate that the nature of the threat must be looked at objectively; that is, as it would be by the ordinary reasonable person. The words which are said to constitute a threat must be looked at in light of various factors. They must be considered objectively and within the context of all the written words or conversation in which they occurred. As well, some thought must be given to the situation of the recipient of the threat.
The question to be resolved may be put in the following way. Looked at objectively, in the context of all the words written or spoken and having regard to the person to whom they were directed, would the questioned words convey a threat of serious bodily harm to a reasonable person?
Thus, the question of whether the accused had the intent to intimidate, or that his words were meant to be taken seriously, will, in the absence of any explanation by the accused, usually be determined by the words used, the context in which were spoken, and the person to whom they were directed.
But was it made that way? You're assuming this from a third party account of the situation with nothing to indicate intent.
Maybe its because of the responses I get, I am also doing it for free.
if you think it through. its a silly requirement to have to identify the exact threat before it becomes criminal. ( thats actualy the test to break solicitor client privilege, there is a big difference )
it is not difficult to threaten someone without telling them exactly what is going to happen.
As all that we have to work with is one side, that's what I'm working with. I assume that the information given is correct and if it isn't, be it on the head of the person seeking advice.