I always wondered how does that work…
Let’s say I get cottage (500k value), and sis gets family home (1M) value…
How does the estate pay that capital gain?
Where’s that money come from exactly if the bank account is empty?
Everyone always says ‘the estate will pay that’…but how?
Once inheritance is triggered, the estate pays all the taxes and outstanding debts before distributing assets - just because you inherit the cottage doesn't mean you inherit the estate's tax debt. Funds from the estate are used to pay the CG on your cottage, any income taxes due (including those on cashout of RRSPs), and debts a before the assets are distributed.
There should be no CG on the house (principal residence), investments and the cottage will have some CG, and unused RRSPs will have income taxes due.
Scenario 1:
The estate looks like this:
$250K in cash/stocks/rrsps/insurance,
$500K cottage and;
$1M house.
----------------------
1.75M
Let's also say there are tax liabilities:
$100K in CG on the cottage
$50K Inccome and or CG tax on the cash out of stocks, RRSPs etc.
Total tax liability: $150K.
The estate uses the cash to pay the tax debt, you get the cottage, sis gets the house. and the remaining cash is divvied up according to the terms in the will. Done.
Scenario 2:
The estate looks like this:
$0K in cash/stocks/rrsps/insurance,
$500K cottage and;
$1M house.
----------------------
$1.5M
Let's also say there are tax liabilities:
$100K in CG on the cottage
Total tax liability: $100K.
The estate needs cash to pay the tax debt -- no cash available. The tax debs dilute each inheritance on a pro rata basis, so in this simple scenario 66.6% of that debt would come from whoever inherits the house ($66,666), and 33.3% ($33,333) from whoever inherits the cottage. If either party cannot pay their part, the likely scenario is real estate they inherited will be sold and they get cash proceeds instead. So if you inherit the cottage, you'd have to come up with 1/3rd (or the prorated value) in cash to keep the place. If Sis couldn't raise the funds to pay the 66%, the house would be sold, and she gets her slice in cash, say $920K.
Clear as mud?